QUOTE(Thabo @ Aug 13 2007, 10:11 PM)

Same difference as English and Spanish.
If that is true then Urdu would have to be a Semetic language like Hebrew, because English and Spannish belong to the same language family known as Indo-European and known more closely as the Centum brand of Indo-European.
I could even narrow it down further if I wanted to, because English has enough latin words to be considered a romance/germanic mixed language.
QUOTE(Thabo @ Aug 13 2007, 09:59 PM)

Pakistan will ALWAYS exist no matter what you random joes think.
Pakistan Zindabad!
QUOTE
In 712 CE, the Arab general Muhammad bin Qasim[10] conquered Sindh and Multan in southern Punjab. Some state that the foundation of Pakistan was laid as a result of this invasion.[11] This would set the stage for several successive Muslim empires in the subcontinent, including the Ghaznavid Empire, the Ghorid Kingdom, the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughal Empire. During this period, Sufi missionaries played a pivotal role in converting a majority of the regional Buddhist and Hindu population to Islam. The gradual decline of the Mughal Empire in the early eighteenth century provided opportunities for the Afghans, Balochis and Sikhs to exercise control over large areas until the British East India Company[12] gained ascendancy over South Asia.
The 1857 War of IndependenceThe rebellion, also known as the Indian Mutiny, in 1857 was the region's last major armed struggle against the British Raj, and it laid the foundations for the generally unarmed freedom struggle led by the Congress. However, the Muslim League rose to popularity in the late 1930s amid fears of under-representation and neglect of Muslims in politics. On 29 December 1930, Allama Iqbal's presidential address called for an autonomous "state in northwestern India for Indian Muslims, within the body politic of India." [13] Muhammad Ali Jinnah espoused the Two Nation Theory and led the Muslim League to adopt the Lahore Resolution[14] of 1940 (popularly known as Pakistan Resolution), which ultimately led to the independence for Pakistan.
Pakistan was formed on 14 August 1947 with two Muslim-majority wings in the eastern and northwestern regions of the British India, separated from the rest of the country with a Hindu majority, and comprising the provinces of Balochistan, East Bengal, the North-West Frontier Province, West Punjab and Sindh. The partition of British India resulted in communal riots[15] across India and Pakistan—millions of Muslims moved to Pakistan and millions of Hindus and Sikhs moved to India. Disputes arose over several princely states including Jammu and Kashmir whose ruler had acceded to India following an invasion by Pashtun warriors, leading to the First Kashmir War (1948) ending with Pakistan occupying roughly one-third of the state. From 1947 to 1956, Pakistan was a Dominion in the Commonwealth of Nations. The republic declared in 1956 was stalled by a coup d'etat by Ayub Khan (1958–69), who was president during a period of internal instability and a second war with India in 1965. His successor, Yahya Khan (1969–71) had to deal with the cyclone which caused 500,000 deaths[16] in East Pakistan.
Pakistan is just a religious coalition of Sunni Muslims between a shiite state and a Hindu state.
Why don't you Pakis just divide your country out, have Punjabs and Sindhis join India under a religious tolerance act, and the Afghans/Pashtuns and Balochis join Iran in a federalized republic. You can even have Afghanistan and Tajikstan join the same federation with Iran by being Iranic people after all and thus being part of an actual nation.

Balochis are Iranic.
Pashtuns/Afghans are Iranic.
The Tajik which make up the rest of Afghanistan and Tajikistan are Iranic.
It only makes sense for them to join Iran in a federation.
Punjabis are Indo-Aryan like Hindis.
Sindhis are Indo-Aryan like Punjabis and Hindis.
Also Urdu is a Hindustani dialect.