QUOTE(islander @ Aug 17 2008, 07:40 PM) [snapback]3875899[/snapback]
I found this article on "Race Mixing and Westernization in Latin America and the Philippines" It explains why the Spaniards did not do as well in the Philippines compared to Latin America.
http://www.analitica.com/Bitblio/emily_mon...race_mixing.asp@NeoVxR - You said: "Regarding Mexico, I hear no bad words about the short Austrian era of colonial monarchy. Could it be they have done slightly better?"
You got to be kidding! You do know they overthrew a democratically elected gov't.. And then later on tried to reintroduce slavery. This slavery had to do with getting closer to US confederates. And it was the French. The French Emperor Napeoleon the III that placed the Austrian Maximilian of Habsburg has Emperor of Mexico. But he was a puppet. A puppet of the French. Found out Austrian and Belgian volunteers were fighting for the French in Mexico.
thanks for the article.
Though it seems a partisan view, influenced by the current struggle of Venezuela in finding its genuine identity and political according system.
I would not rely on demographic statistics about the Philippines from that souce. Also I think that it is downplaying the sociopolitic role of the upper class families with Spanish heritage. (I am not judging this role here)
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At the end of the day, the Americas are a cultural extension of Europe, whereas Africa is not.
Well, here in Europe, the Americas are seen both as very foreign and culturally different from nowadays Europeans, but Africa is still much more foreign. I perceive the Latin American countries as an emerging third cultural force, not Western nor Eastern. (Why think that bipolar at all?)
The big melting pot has its own advantage and power. Expect bigger things to come.
Adopting the Spanish language does not make Latin Americans more European (and there is a revival of qechua also), than adopting the English language would make Filipinos American. Also there are vast differences between Latin American countries. The point to make is, that so much of genuine culture and ethnic substance has been destroyed and lost (much more than in Asia). But the outcome does not have a European self-view at all.
There is much more than language, that defines mindset, culture, and political goals, just that language helps in worldwide compatibility which is an advantage for commerce and tourism.
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why did the region not end up like the Philippines, whose people were conquered by Spain but nonetheless kept their own languages and cultural traditions?
Because the pre-spanish Filipinos already had a stronger and technically more advanced culture than the native South Americans. They were already masters of seafare and commerce. As trading peoples, they had great inter-cultural human skills and experience in the encounter of foreign cultures. They would never had mistaken white visitors as "gods".
Plus:
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The main reason for the dearth of Spanish-Filipino mestizos was that few Spaniards ventured to the Philippines. The voyage from Spain to the islands was considerably long.
I think we should just focus on useful ideas that are spreading throughout the world, while having their origins in various particular western and eastern cultures.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filipino_mestizoQUOTE
There are no reliable sources for the proportion of mestizos in the Philippines at present, this is due in part to the lack of government statistical study regarding the racial makeup of the Philippines. The Philippine Statistics Department does not account for the racial background or ancestry of an indivdual. The number of Filipino mestizos that reside outside the Philippines is also unknown.
Some sources say that European mestizos make ~10% of Filipino population.
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I was asking because I don't know enough about this part of history.
Still to me it seems that the Latin Americans are putting the bigger blame on the French and Spanish than on Austrans, and your remark is contributing to some explanation.
So..
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Habs...peror_of_MexicoI checked the who is who and there are in fact two relevant persons:
* Marie Leopoldina, Archduchess of Austria (1797-1826), first wife of Peter I, Emperor of Brazil
* Maximilian I of Mexico (1832; 1864-1867)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maximilian_I_of_MexicoQUOTE
Maximilian, an adventurous younger son, was invited as part of Napoleon III's manipulations to take the throne of Mexico, becoming Emperor Maximilian I of Mexico. The conservative Mexicans, as well as the clergy, supported this Second Mexican Empire. His consort, Empress Carlota of Mexico, born a Belgian princess of the House of Saxe-Coburg Gotha, encouraged her husband's acceptance of the Mexican crown and accompanied him to Mexico. The adventure did not end well. Maximilian was shot in "Cerro de las Campanas" in 1867 by the republican forces of Benito Juárez.
Many foreign governments refused to recognize his government, especially the United States;
so he was part of the system, but not much active on his own, and did not prevail unpunished.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maria_Leopold...hess_of_Austria :
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Princess Leopoldina thus became Brazil's first Empress consort. She also played an important role on the Declaration of Independence process. The princess found out that Portugal was preparing an action against Brasil and, having no time to wait for D. Pedro's return, Leopoldina, advised by José Bonifácio, and using its interim power, met on September 2, 1822 with the State of Council, signed the Independence decree, declaring Brasil separated from Portugal.
My point is, though I am against dynastic ruling houses today, we should make a difference, because that difference can explain quite a lot and helps to judge for the future, when some black-and-white thinking is fostered by the players in a current political struggle.