QUOTE(B.ZhangMidshipman @ Jan 13 2009, 05:28 AM) [snapback]4083108[/snapback]
It's quite possible that 'R1a' is the Hunnic marker. Neither its occurance in Iceland and India debunks it. Though, I am a littel skeptical about Iceland.
When it comes to India, the ancient Yuezhi people and the Kushan Empire had a lot of contacts with the Xiongu/Huns. The acquirement of the 'R1a' marker may have been more recent from the Mughals. The first Mughals were people of Turko-Mongol ancestrry from the Timurid Empire. They ruled India for over 300 years. When I say 'Turko' I'm not referring to modern day Anatolian-Turks. I mean the Asiatic-Turkic people which include the Altays, people with high portions of 'R1a'
I'm not too familiar with the relationship between the Scandinavians and the Germanic tribes who had significant amounts of contact with the Huns (Gepids, Vandals, Ostrogoth, Visigoth, Alans, etc...) If the ancestors of the Vikings are related to these Germanic tribes, then that may explain why 'R1a' is in Iceland. If not, then the 'R1a' presence in Iceland may serve a big debunker for the Huns = R1a theory. Norse Mythology has a character Atli, derived from the historic Attila: (http://www.timelessmyths.com/norse/norseminor.html#Atli).
The Yuezhi/Kushan people were Indo-European speakers closely related to the Indo-Iranians. As for the Mughals, they did initially have a Turkic elite, but they came in such small numbers that their genetic impact on the massive Indian population is almost negligible.
The R1a haplogroup originated in prehistoric times as silverknight has pointed out. According to the geneticist Stephen Oppenheimer, the highest frequency and diversity of R1a occurs around Pakistan, north India and eastern Iran, therefore it most likely originated from this region in prehistoric times. In particular, the highest frequency of R1a occurs among Kashmiris (72%).
It's also unlikely that R1a was introduced into Eastern Europe from the Altay, because Ukraine has a higher frequency and diversity of R1a than the Altay region. It was also through Ukraine that the Indo-European languages spread to the rest of Europe, so it's more likely that the spread of R1a in Europe occurred due to the spread of the Indo-European languages, rather than the Hunnic invasions.
QUOTE(B.ZhangMidshipman @ Jan 13 2009, 05:45 AM) [snapback]4083133[/snapback]
I highly disagree here. I agree more with the notion that Huns were Altaic 'R1a' when you make your conclusion that Huns were originally C-predominant, you are making a huge fallacy. It's not really your fault, it's due to something which many people don't know about. Many people say that most modern day Mongolians are not the real descendants of the Xiongu/Huns and Chingiz Kahn. Yes these people live in Mongolian as of now, but a few hundred years ago it was inhabited by people who were mostly of an Asiatic-Turkic background.
The change happened when the Manzhu Qing Dynasty conquered the Dzungars and killed around 70 - 80% of them, and the open space was then filled by people of Buryat, Manchu, and a little bit of Han Chinese people. The Dzungars were the real heirs of the Mongol Empire and were made up of Oyrats (Who are mostly 'R1a').
Are you suggesting that there was a massive genocide against the original inhabitants of Mongolia and that the entire population there was suddenly displaced by foreigners? Do you have any evidence to support this extraordinary claim? I find this highly unlikely, especially considering the fact that the Mongolian language spoken by the Mongols today as their mother tongue is closest to the Mongolian language spoken by Chingis Khan.
As for why the Turks possess a much higher frequency of R1a than the Mongols, this can be explained by the simple fact that they mixed with the earlier Iranian tribes of Central Asia. The Turkic tribes were originally more similar to the Mongols, but it was due to admixture with the Iranian tribes that their appearance and genetics began differing from the Mongols. The Scythians and other Iranian tribes were spread across the whole of Central Asia in ancient times, but then they were later displaced by the Turks across much of the region. Those Iranian tribes were not suddenly wiped out, but they were assimilated into the Turkic populations of Central Asia.